AIPG 2011 Dental Questions Recall
1. 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
2. Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in
a.Shallow sulcus
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation
3. Gingival clefts may be formed by
a. occlusal disharmonies
b. faulty tooth brushing
c. normal frenum attachment
d. use of dental floss
4. Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme
5. ADH from
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic
6. blood coagualation defect not seen?
a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.
7. attached gingiva is
a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces
d. resistant to inflammatory changes
8. Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous
osteophytic
exophyric
9. type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic
10. most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
11. most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture
12. probable etiology of gingivosis is
high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency
13. supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
14. difference between sub and supragingival calculus is related to
pH of saliva
death of leukocytes
hemolysis of erythrocytes
all of the above
15. which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption
16. delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above
17. which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing
18. which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index
-sulcus bleeding index
19. which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
-all of the above
20. following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index
- glass criteria for scoring debris
21. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
-fibroblases
-neutrophils
-lymphocytes
-plasma cells
22. teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
Q23. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus
Q24. Coeliac plexus is located:
1. Anterolateral & around the aorta
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Q25. hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none
Q26. Radiograph alone can diagnose:
1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement
Q27. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:
1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease
Q28. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy
Q29. parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat
Q30. a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
???????????????
Q31. 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
D ans for dis s COLLAGEN FIBERS ONLY
ref - carranza 9th ed pg no. 38, its also given in glickmann's clinical periodontology..............
Both d book states- In addition to these fibers types i.e. principal collagen, oxytalan n eluanin, SMALL COLLAGEN FIBERS ASSOCIATED WITH THE LARGE PRINCIPAL COLLAGEN FIBERS HAVE BEEN DESCRIBED. THESE FIBERS RUN IN ALL DIRECTIONS FROM A PLEXUS CALLED THE '' INDIFFERENT FIBER PLEXUS''.
Q32. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
plasma cells
Q33. Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss
Q34. In short which of the following is not and effect of increased prolactin level,..
a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation
Q35. Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it?
Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso
Q36. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children
a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false
Q37. 'not sensory to palate?
a. facial n
b , glossopharyngeal n
c. asending pharyngeal n
d. vagus
Q38. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus
Q39. involuntary movement of eye ball by
a. visual cortex
b. cerebellum
c.?
d. ?
Q40. 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?
a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity
Q41. 'nitrates are not used in
a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic
d. cyanide poisoning
Q42. whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?
a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril
Q tocolytic agent..( cant remem d options)
Q alpha 2 antagonist..
Q vancomycin rest
linezolid
ceftotaxime
oflxacin
Q clostritidium tetani..regarding d pathogenesis of its toxin
Q myasthenia gravis..
again pthogenesis of d disease..receptors block d nmj
Q 90 out of 160 n 40 out of 160 reports failed extubation in cpap and cpap bubble tests...which test will be done?
student t
anova
paired
chi square
nucleus affected in diabetes insipidus
supraoptic
resurgent malaria occurs cz of followin reasons xcept
host resistance
resistance in d parasite
genetic alteration in d host
Q on scrub typhus
Q ethnicity
CHF treatment a/e
1. spironolactone
2. nitrates
3. nesiritide
4. trimetazidine ***
IFN gamma acts against virus during
1. DNA replication***
2. Protein transcription***
3. Uncapping of capsule
Occupational cancer a/e
1. liver
2. lung
3. skin
4. leukemia
occupational cancer ans..
liver
tocolytics........atusinab........
mta ratio......3:1
@ALL
1 All of the following can be a cause of resurgent malaria except –
a. Emergence of new strains
b. Genetic alterations in the host
c. Drug resistance in the parasite
d. Resistance of the vector to DDT
2 ADH/DI from hypothalamic nuclei
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. suprachiasmatic
3.least common occupational Ca
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia
4.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium lepra
5 to access state of consciousness in t,. minimum GCS score is
a.7
b.1
c.3
d.0
6.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
d.letrozol
7.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.adjuvant
d.lipid Ag
8.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.erythromycin
9.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
10 Bacteria causing Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis -
a) Strep. Viridians
b)staph areua
c)lactobacillus
d.beta hemolytic strept
11 parotid fascia continues anteriorly as...
1.fascia lata
2.deep cervical fascia
3 MASSETERIC FASCIA
12which is difficult to diagnose
1,necrosed pulp
2.chronic pulitis@@@
3.internal resorption
13 heriditary spherocytosis,all are true except
a- increased osmotic fragility
b. increase vol:surface ratio
14All r true abt propofol exept
causes vomiting@@@@
15ann arbour classification
Stage III :
>Involvement of lymph node regions or lymphoid structures on both sides of the diaphragm
>Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm
16 Dental floss - Type 1 embrassure
17function of serum albumin
oncotic pressure
toxin transport
buffer
drug transport
18dengue haemorrhagic fever caused by
virus
19which of foll nt used in hrtfailure
spironolactone,
Nitroglycerine
nestride
trimetazidine
20 non resp function of lung....
.sodium balance
21 mysthania gravis..which is nt true...
ab formed to ach receptors,
accumulation of ach.
.abs bind to ach...
22 .negpredictivevalue 0.75 means....
75%chances tht dis wil nt be present if test is negative.
23..ethnicity refers to....
24 incidence of dis at particular age in a given place calc by....(CPAP values)
.paired t test
,chi sq test
,student t
test of variance
25was sensory branch of ant. division of mandi. nerve
.-long buccal
buccal n
26sensory supply of soft palate a/e
vagus
facial nerve
27tevdek sutures- 4-72 hrs
28 CLINICALLY SUSPICIOUS LESION- REPEAT BIOPSY
29prophylaxis of migraine
topiramate
ppl
fluner
30leukemia not common in
down syndrome
bloom syndrome
31normal cd4 cell count
1000 cells
500
200
100
32bronchodilating intravenous anesthetic
propofol
thiopentone
ketamine
33most common caries seen in primary teeth ??
occlusal pit fissures of molars
proximal surface below cntct point
proximal surface above cntct point
34 aftr viewing a radiograph there were caries deep may b approaching the pulp horn ... wht should u do ??
remove the entire carious lesion as part of acces prep n strt endodontic therapy
remove sum caries n place a intermmediate sedative dressng
place a sedative dressing plan for a pulpotomy in the next appointment
35bordetella pertusis ?? all except
it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine
36 spinal cord lesion causing dissociative sensory loss
a.decussating fibres from lateral spinothalamic tract
anterior column
dorsal column
37mosaic bone patern ???
oestitis deformans
osteosarcoma
fibrous dysplasia
38most common cause of tmj ankylosis ???
trauma
infection
39wht can u find out only by radiographs ???
anatomical root length
sulcus depth
40 root caries
actinomyces viscosus
strepto mutans Jan 15 (1 day ago) Dr.Arjun
41 not seen in periodontosis ????
mycoplasma
actinomyces
a.a
42root caries - A.viscosis (repeated in exam)
43 forces of --- occur in alveolar border of mandibular fracture
compression
tension
44which is not injured in lower third molar extrn
IAN
IAA
Lingual nerve
lingual artery ??
45 x ray for third molar revelas nerve becomes thinner along the tooth root.. cause??
root perforated by nerve,
nerve goes between root of teeth
46 The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction
47 Which of the following is not a somatic efferent
a) trochlear
b) facial @@@@@@@@@@
c) abducens
d) occulomotor
48 dofti is used for?
proximal caries in primary teeth
49 pulmonary endothelium?
lipoprotein lipase...
plasma actiyation factor
thrombin
factor x
50 when patient has vancomycin resistant infection, tablet to b given,
oflaxacin
clarithromycin
cefatrime
linezolid
51 which does not cause sedation
buspirone
diazepam
52 patient taking rifampicin and OC became pregnant .. why?
cos rifampicin caused increased metabolism of OC
increase excretion of OC
decreased absorpton of OC
53 least antiemetic
domperidone
cisapride@@@@@@
chlorpromazine
metaclopromide
54 best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
55 all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma
56 decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise
57 which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.lQF-PCR
c.microarray
d.nested pcr
58 mensual cycle indicator
a.hormone steroid profile@@@@@@
59 not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal
60 if pneumothorax occurs in a patient...
a.surfactant will be reduced...
b.intrapleural pressure becomes more negative....
61 in maternal mortality rate whch is not true
a.it is expressed per 1000
b.it is ratio not rate
c. denominator includes stiil births, live births,..
62 all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,
63 fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E @@@@[
64 india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB
65 interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above
66sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which
bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none
67attached gingiva is
always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes
68m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
69m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture
70probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone
71supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve
72difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc Jan 15 (1 day ago) Dr.Arjun
73 all of d above in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease
74 mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma
75Coeliac plexus is located:
1. Anterolateral & around the aorta>this is wrong answer.
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain .
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
76 ga intrathecal contraindicated?
Fentanyl
ramefentanyle
77 parenteral nutrion which is not given
a.fibre
b.micronutrient
c.carbohydrate
d. fat
78 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
79 a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis @@@@@@@@
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
80 green stains on children teeth
chromogenic bacteria
81orf stands for
open reading frame??
82 Donavanosis true is,
caused ny camylobacterium
83 the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
84 Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss
85 plasma cells most fatal
1.pagets disease
2.multiple myeloma
3.osteosarcoma
86 .LA Failure
Cations
87 recycling of small bile acid pool
fast
slow
88 .Oral polio virus: killed vaccine
89 nonvascular headache, anaesthesia dolorosa
90.malignancy of AIDS: kaposi Sarcoma.
91 .Cooley,s
92.genicluate ganglion : Taste.
93 Centre of eye movements.
Frontal visual field
94. site for subsance P
95 All are tocolytic except.....
???
???
??
Atosiban???? Jan 15 (1 day ago) Dr.Arjun
96 Dopamine receptors D2 blocks Prolactin secretion, so when there is smethng interfering wid dis Dopamine receptors than what will not occur,...
a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation
97 Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it? Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso
98 high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children
a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false
99'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?
a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus @@@@@@@
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity
100 nitrates r not used in
a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic @@@@@@@@@@@
d. cyanide poisoning
101 'whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?
a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril
102 Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in
a.Shallow sulcus @@@@@
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation
103Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme
104 desquamative gingivits histological feaus-
loss of basement membrane
105 blood coagualation defect not seen?
a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.
106MTA p:l ratio 3:1
107 Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous@@@@@@@@
osteophytic
exophytic
108 type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical@@@@@@
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic
109 most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics @@@@@@@@@
insulin
birth control pills
110 most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility@@@@@@@@@
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture
111 probable etiology of gingivosis is
high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone@@@@@
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency
112 Down syndrome translocation
46XY -14 t[14,21]
47XY +21 t[14,21]
47XY -14 t[14,21]
46XY t{14,21]
113 supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative@@@@@@@@@
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
114 which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption@@@@@@@@@@
115 delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens @@@@@@@@@
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above
________________________________________
116 which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing
117 which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index@@@@@@@
-sulcus bleeding index
118 which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index@@@@@@@@@@@
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
119 -all of the above following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index@@@@@@@@@@@@
- glass criteria for scoring debris
120 teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines@@@@@@@@@
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
121 sinusitis...fluid level..clouding
122ground glass appearence.. {was this asked ?}
.
123 sphingomylein....
124 back pressure porosity...
125 film speed recommended for caries detection
1 c
2 d
3 e
4 f
126 hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none
127 Radiograph alone can diagnose:
1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement
128 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:
1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease
129. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy
130 all are true abt sitagliptin except,.....
-is nt given alone, always wid sulfonylureas-
-it causes,.. sme adverse effects??
-increases insulin secrection,decreases glucagon,,
131What is seen in acute infection?
-leucocytosis@@
-leukopenia
-lymphocytosis
-neutopenia
132'saw tooth' rete pegs are seen in
lichen planus@@@
133 >>radiating lines on buccal mucosa
lichen planus@@
134MEAN>>>MEDIAN>>>>MODE__________ POSITIVELY SKEWED
135 which of the following should be done for better efficiency and longer shelf life of a carbide bur..
-should rotate slow before entering the cavity
-should rotate fast before entering the cavity
-sould rotate fast before entering the mouth
-should rotate after entering the cavity
136 if a 6 yr old patient comes with a bluish-purlpe swelling behind the deciduous second molar, then what will u do??
- assure the patient,explain the situation and send him back
- some curettage/enucleation/or sme extensive procedure,.. cant recall d other options
137 Bacterial enzyme causing degradation of ground substance _______
a) Hyaluronidase b) Collagenase
138 which of thw following is correct for a facial porcelain preparation
the walls should be parralel to the tooth surface
the walls should converge facially
the walls should diverge facially
the walls should meet the tooth surface at right angels
139 excisional biopsy
-removal of normal tissue and all of lesion @@@@
140 >paradoxical movement of chest in a patient who has suffered from trauma-
_flail chest@@@
141 Rotheras test used to detect
carbohydrate
protien
fat
ketone bodies
142which of the following seen with acromegaly
-large tongue@@@
-micrognathia
-crowding
143 drug of choice trigeminal neuralgia-carbamazepine
144 which of the following controls voluntary eye movements?
a.frontal eye field
b.superior colliculus
c.visual cortex
d.cerebellum
145 Which of the following does not cause postural hypotension
prazoxin
phetolamine
146 normal glucose and increased protein in CSF
147 Which of the following is not an Alpha 2 blocker,
yohimbein
148which of the following is useful in representing the relationship between age and incidence of cancer?
A.bar diagram.
B.line diagram.
C.pie diagram.
D.stem and leaf.
149four mabs and mechanisms, which is not correct
ritusuximab/ etc CD cells/Bcells /TNFa/interleukins.. etc
150 young child with indurated ulcers, fever , lymhadenopathy.... (acute herpati gingivostomatitis
-symptomatic tT
151 pt complains of pain and foul smell on third day after extraction,
-irrigate the socket and place sedative dressing
-curretage, sedative dressing
-search for the roots
152 if a radiograph shows 3mm bone loss, nd clinically there is 6-mm bone loss , true is?
-facial or lingual bone masking the loss of interdental bone on radiograft
153 first step to be done after trauma?/
-clear airway
-circulation maintainance
154 Radiographically the level of alveolar crest corresponds to?
-CEJ of adjacent teeth@@@@@@@@@@@
-dentoenamal junction?
-trabeculae pattern?
-gingival margin?
155 Child dosage of NSAIDs,. depend on
weight of child
156 difference in the cavity prepaaration of gold inlay and composite class 5
convenient form
gingival bevel
cavosurface margine
157 patient complains of sharp pain after recent restoration of gold onlay
due to
-galvanic current due to gold cast crown opposing amalgam restoration @@@@
-improper filling\
-pulpitis
158 Most common Tumor of Parotid Gland
-Pleomorphic Adenoma
159 Herpangina is caused by
-Cocksakie virus
160 Deficiency of which vitamin will cause Hypoplasia of all teeth
-Vit A @@@
161 Neonatal Teeth
- those errupted with in 30 days of birth @@@@
- by 1 year
-at birth
162 most common site for sialoliths
-parotid duct
-parotid gland
-submandibular gland and duct@@@@@@@@@@
-sublingual
163 nt match
......>herbiside
nalaxone>tca
164not related to action of cortiosteroids
DECREASE ..iCAM...
165..DNA repairs defect associated with
A.Xeroderma pigmentosum@@@@
B.icthyosis
c.Mosaicism.
d???
166 >> First radio sigh to diagnose carious involvement in primary tooth
-radiolucency in furcation area@@@@@
-apical pdl radiolucency
-internal resorption
167 What will u do if after etching Class III cavity preperation is contaminated by saliva..
-wash, rinse and re-etch @@@
168.20 mins after avulsion of teeth what should be done
-rinse wid saline, and replant @@@@
-cutretage of root/etch??
169 true about multiple myloma
invariably raised alkaline phosphatase
170 True abt Autism,
-Mental retardation &
-speech prob & communication prob
171 juvenile periodontitis
areobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve
-anareobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve, .
172 prostrate specific antigen-
tumour marker
173 obesity not caused by
diabetes mallitus
estrogen deficiency
hypothyroidism
174 Not present in basement membrane
rhodopsin
175 sd/mean
coefficient of variance
standard error
176 Hyaline cartilage collagen
type II
177 gout = purine metabolism
178 turner tooth
179carpenter syndrome?
180 oxycephaly?
181/50%drug elimination at end of infusion
context half life?
182 cerebellar region lesion........
b.ipsilateral
c. contralateral
183 DLC-EOSINOPHILIA
184 HAEMOPHILIA - DEFECT IN FACTOR 8 GENE
185 SOMATOMEDIN MEDIATE- CHONDRITIN SULFATE DEPOSITION
1
86 True about broncial circulation
air conditioning
187 fibers attached to adjaceent teeth
transeptal
188 phlegmon type of
cellulitis
189 Incidence is high and prevalance is low means
a. disease is cured easily or fatal
b.disease is not cured easily
c. they are not related
190. not attached to oblique line of hyroid cartilage
sup constrictor
middle constrictor
191,. No change in rural/urban
TB
192 less light headedness and early recovery and ambulation
propofol
193. CO poisoning
shift of curve
2,3 bpg
194. mutation of sickle cell anaemia protective against
malaria
195. anti pseudomonal - cefoperazone
196haemopoietic stem cells differ frm committed progenitor cells
long term reconstitution of bone marrow
197 true about ace inhibitors,
c.i in asthma
198Which of the following cells migrate into the sulcus, in largest quantity, as a result of plaque accumalation
a)lymphocytes
b)macrophages
c)neutrophils/PMNs @@@@@@@@@
d)plasma cells
Q.most difficult periapical pathosis to diagnose a.chronic pulpitis b.necrotic pulp c.internal resorption 3:17 am (1½ hours ago) Dr. Milind
its chronic pulpitis....nbde questn...
Few other questions
1.not an occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia
2.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae
3.minimum score of GCS
a.1
b.3@@
c.7
d.
4.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol
5.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.
d.lipid Ag
6.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin
7.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
8. common occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca @@@@
c.liver ca
d.leukemia
9. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma
10. decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise
11. which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray@@@@@@@2
12. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder @@@@???????
pheochromocytoma
13. not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal
14. sensory supply of soft palate
facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary
15. all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,
16. fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E
Q17. india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB
18. interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above
19. sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which
bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none
20. attached gingiva is
always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes
21. m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
22. m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture
23. probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone
24. supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve
25. difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
all of d above
26. in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease
27. mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma
28. The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction
when bile pool is low recycling becomes
1. faster
2. slower
3.unchanged
4. bears no relation
-------
qs about mech of corticosteroids,
cerebellar lesions
migraine prophylaxis
iv anesthetic causing bronchodialation,
tocolytic agents,
normal cd4 counts
oxycephaly
donovanosis
prpofol
headache of vascular origin
3rd molar extaction
down syndromne
acute leukemia predispong factors
cooleys anemia
maternal mortalityrate
ant ethmoidal nerve
fatal ds- multiple myeloma etc
juvenile perio bacteria
ace inhibitors
incidence > prev
turnrs hypo
---------
1.Non-respi function of lungs:
sodium balance
2.Function of bronchiaL circulation:
gaseous exchange
3.Sphingomyelinase deficiency, mental retardation etc:
Nieman picks disease
4.Rural and urban difference(PSM ques):
TB
5.Resurgence of malaria all except:
Resistane in host
6.Heterozygous sickle cell anemia esistant towards:
Malaria
7.Scrub typhus all except:
Transmitted when adult mite feeds..
8.0.75 negative predictive value means??
9.Cooleys anemia:
beta thalassemia major
10.Craniosynostosis,preaxial polysyndactyly...
Carpenters syndrome
11. normal CD4 cell count should be above:
1000/cu.mm
12.Not a cause of vascular headache:
Anesthesia dolorosa
--------------
bronchial circulation is for air conditioning
------------
1 All of the following can be a cause of resurgent malaria except –
a. Emergence of new strains
b. Genetic alterations in the host
c. Drug resistance in the parasite
d. Resistance of the vector to DDT
2 ADH from
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic
3.not an occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia
4.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium lepra
5 q.IN the pt who is in the state of consciousness what is the minimum level of score measured on glassgow coma scale??
a.7
b.5
c.3
d.0
6.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol
7.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.adjuvant
d.lipid Ag
8.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin
9.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
10 Bacteria causing Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis -a) Strep. Viridians
11 parotid fascia continues anteriorly as...
1.fascia lata
2.deep cervical fascia
3 MASSETERIC FASCIA
12secondary polycythemia is caused by a/e
ans- myeloproliferative disorder
13 sphroblastic anemia - increased osmotic fragility
14All r true abt propofol exept
causes vomiting@@@@
15ann arbour classification
Stage III :
>Involvement of lymph node regions or lymphoid structures on both sides of the diaphragm
>Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm
> dnt remembr other options
16all are STD except
a.hapatitis B
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae @@@@@
17function of serum albumin
oncotic pressure??????
toxin transport
buffer
drug transport
18both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c. adjuvants
d.lipid Ag
19which of foll nt used in hrtfailure....
................spironolactone,
Nitroglycerine
,nestride
20 non resp function of lung....
.sodium exchange
21 mysthania gravis..which is nt true...ab formed to ach receptors,accumulation of ach.
.abs bind to ach...
22 .negpredictivevalue 0.75 means....
75%chances tht dis wil nt be present if test is negative.
23..ethnicity refers to....
24 incidence of dis at particular age in a given place calc by....
.......paired t test
,chisq test
,ind t test.....
25was sensory branch of ant. division of mandi. nerve
.-long buccal
buccal n
26sensory supply of soft palate a/e
vagus
facial nerce
27
.tere tevdek sutures
28 down syndrome translocation
46xy t(14:21)
29prophylaxis of migraine
topiramate
ppl
fluner
30 leukemia not common in
down syndrome
bloom syndrome
31normal cd4 cell count
1000 cells
500
200
????
32bronchodilating intravenous anesthetic
propofol
thiopentone
ketamine
????
33most common caries seen in primary teeth ??
occlusal pit fissures of molars
proximal surface below cntct point
proximal surface above cntct point
????????????????????
34 aftr viewing a radiograph there were caries deep may b approaching the pulp horn ... wht should u do ??
remove the entire carious lesion n strt pupectomy (m not sure but sumtng like dis )
remove sum caries n place a intermmediate sedative dressng
place a sedative dressing plan for a pulpotomy in the next appointment
35
bordetella pertusis ?? all except
it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine
?????
???
????
36
spinal cord lesion causing dissociative sensory loss
decussating fibres from lateral spinothalamic tract
anterior column
dorsal column
37
mosaic bone patern ???
pagets
osteosarcoma
fibrous dysplasia
??????
38
most common cause of tmj ankylosis ???
trauma
infection
????
39wht can u find out ony by radiographs ???
anatomical root length
sulcus depth
??? ??
40
root caries
actinomyces viscosus
strepto mutans ???
????
???/
41
not seen in periodontosis ????
mycoplasma
actinomyces
aac
??????? not seen in periodontosis ????
42 > :up:thi was repeated
mycoplasma
actinomyces
aac
???????
43 orces of --- occur in alveolar border of mandibular fracture
compression
tension??????????
???
???
44
which is not injured in lower third molar extrn
IAN
IAA
Lingual nerve
lingual artery ??
45 x ray for third molar revelas nerve becomes thinner along the tooth root.. cause??
root perforated by nerve,
nerve goes between root of teeth???
?????
????
46 The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn
cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the
post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be
identified by a positive Nagler reaction
47 structure most commonly involved in injury while extn of mand 3rd molar?
inf alv nerve
inf alv artery
lingual nerve
lingual artery
48 dofti is used for?
proximal caries in primary teeth
49 bordetella pertusis ?? all except
it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine pulmonary endothelium?
lipoprotein lipase...
plasma actiyation factor
thrombin
factor x
50 when patient has vancomycin resistant infection, tablet to b given,
oflaxacin
clarithromycin
cefatrime
linezolid
51 which does not cause sedation
buspirone
diazepam
????
????
52 patient taking rifampicin and OC became pregnant .. why?
cos rifampicin caused increased metabolism of OC
increase excretion of OC
decreased absorpton of OC
???
53 least antiemetic
domperidone
cisapride@@@@@@
chlorpromazine
metaclopromide
54 best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
55 all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma
56 decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise
57 which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray
58 @ mensual cycle indicator
a.steroid profile@@@@@@2
59 not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal
60 sensory supply of soft palate
facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary
61 in maternal mortality rate whch is not true
a.it is expressed per 1000
b.it is ratio not rate
62 all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,
63
fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E @@@@[
64 india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB
65 interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above
66
sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which
bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none
67
attached gingiva is
always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes
68
m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
69
m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture
70
probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone
71
supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve
72
difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
73 all of d above in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease
74 mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma
75Coeliac plexus is located:
1. Anterolateral & around the aorta>this is wrong answer...around word is wrong
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain .
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
76 ga intrathecal contraindicated? dengue haemorrhagic feve
Fentanyl
ramefentanyle
77
parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat
78 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
79 a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis @@@@@@@@
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis which is difficult to diagnose
1,necrosed pulp
2.chronic pulitis@@@
3.internal resorption
80
stains on children teeth
chromogenic bacteria
81
orf stands for
open reading frame??
82
clostridium tetani
1.
ant horn cell
2.tetanospsmin exotoxin
3.nagelers reaction in gingivitis,
83 the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
84 Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss
85 plasma cells most fatal
1.pagets disease
2.multiple myeloma
3.osteosarcoma
86 .LA Failure
Cations
87
2. ethinicity
88 .Oral polio virus: killed vaccine
89
4. Bence jones protiens
90.malignancy of AIDS: kaposi Sarcoma.
91 .Cooley,s
92.genicluate ganglion : Taste.
93 Centre of eye movements.
Frontal visual field
94. site for subsance P
95 All are tocolytic except.....
???
???
??
Atosiban????
96 Dopamine receptors D2 blocks Prolactin secretion, so when there is smethng interfering wid dis Dopamine receptors than what will not occur,... :::::::::::::: In short which of the following is not and effect of increased prolactin level,..
a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation
97 Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it?
Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso
98. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children
a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?
99
a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus @@@@@@@
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity
100 nitrates r not used in
a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic @@@@@@@@@@@
d. cyanide poisoning
101 'whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?
a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril
102 Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in
a.Shallow sulcus @@@@@
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?
103
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
c.juvenile periodontitis
104 d. erythema multiforme
desquamative gingivits histological feaus- loss of basement membrane
105 blood coagualation defect not seen?
a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.
106 attached gingiva is
a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces@@@@@@
d. resistant to inflammatory changes
107 Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous@@@@@@@@
osteophytic
exophyric
108 type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical@@@@@@
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic
109 most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics @@@@@@@@@
insulin
birth control pills
110 most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility@@@@@@@@@
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture
111 probable etiology of gingivosis is
high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone@@@@@
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency
112 Down syndrome translocation
46XY -14 t[14,21]
47XY +21 t[14,21]
47XY -14 t[14,21]
46XY t{14,21]
113 supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative@@@@@@@@@
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
114 which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption@@@@@@@@@@
115 delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens @@@@@@@@@
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above
116 which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing
117 which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index@@@@@@@
-sulcus bleeding index
118 which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index@@@@@@@@@@@
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
119 -all of the above following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index@@@@@@@@@@@@
- glass criteria for scoring debris
120 teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines@@@@@@@@@
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
121 sinusitis...fluid level..clouding
122ground glass appearence..
.
123 sphingomylein....
124 back pressure porosity...
125 f film speed recommended for caries detection
1 c
2 d
3 e
4 f
126 hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none
127 Radiograph alone can diagnose:
1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement
128 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:
1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease
129. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy
---------------------
What is seen in acute infection?
-leucocytosis@@
-leukopenia
-lymphocytosis
-neutopenia
If the Incidence of a dz is high and the prevalance is low, thn wat is correct....
- the disease is cured easily or fatal
- disease is not cured easily
- none, they are not releated
which of the following should be done for better efficiency and longer shelf life of a carbide bur..
-should rotate slow before entering the cavity
-should rotate fast before entering the cavity
-sould rotate fast before entering the mouth
-should rotate after entering the cavity
in gingival sulcus the function of the immunoglobulins remain consistent with increase of
plasma cell
lymphocyte
neutrophils
Bacterial enzyme causing degradation of ground substance _______
a) Hyaluronidase b) Collagenase
which of thw following is correct for a facial porcelain preparation
the walls should be parralel to the tooth surface
the walls should converge facially
the walls should diverge facially
the walls should meet the tooth surface at right angels
-------------------
Q. an emotional factor often is associated with eitiology in
-juvenile periodontitis
-chronic gingivitis
-ANUG@@@@
-acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
Q. pt complains of pain and foul smell on third day after extraction,
-irrigate the socket and place sedative dressing
-curretage, sedative dressing
-search for the roots
------------------------
1.Corticosteroids increase the neutrophils in circulation… the question was all are true about corticosteroid except: and the option was they “decrease” neutrophils in circulation… so this is the answer.
Corticosteroids only decrease BEL …basophils, erythrocytes and lymphocytes in circulation…not neutrophils
2.Which is not a disorder of clotting? Ans. is von Willebrand’s disease…as it has increased bleeding time
3.Prolaction does not have a hypothalamic release hormone.
4.A/E OF ACE inhibitors… all except…does not cause postural hypotension… they do cause postural hypotension acc. to Tripathi.
5.CO poisoning shifts O2 dissociation curve to the left
6.One question was about lymphocytosis, decreased glucose and increased protein in CSF… classic features of viral meningitis (poliomyelitis)
7.Mutant sickle cell gene provides protection against “Malaria”, acc. to Neville.
8.Which does not attach to thyroid cartilage’s oblique line…
Sup. Constrictor
Middle constrictor…. Both do not attach to oblique line on thyroid… but out of these superior constrictor will NEVER attach to thyroid cartilage…hence it’s the answer.
11. Fibrin degradation products useful for diagnosis of Disseminated intravascular coagulation… repeat
12.Albumin is oncotic… no doubt…
--------------------------
Anatomy
1]true abt.injury to common peronial nerve causes a/e- a.anesthesia of sole of foot b.# of neck of fibula c.foot drop
2]S5 root not involved in a.adduction of thigh b.foot dorsiflexion c.extension of knee d.flexion of knee
3]not seen in the floor of 3rd ventricle is------- a.3rd nerve b.mamillary body c.optic
4]posterior cerebral circulation obstruction doest involve----- a.pons b.mid brain c.cerebellum d.
5]in anterior choroidal block not seen is------ a.homonymous hemianopia b.hemiplagia c.hemianesthesia
6]which of the following pases through foramen magnum---- a.vertebral artery b.sympathetic trunk c.12th nerve d.int carotid artery
7]structure not present below the pancreas head is---
a) duodenum first part b) Aorta c) IVC d.cbd
8]utricular creast is present in----- prostatic urethra
9]nerve derived from trunk is--- a.supra scapular b.nerve to subclavius c.long thoracic nerve
10]spinal anesthesia is given at----- l2-l4 segment
11]low radial nerve palsy doest involve--- ecrl,ecrb,intrinsic muscles of hand
12]supracondylar# usually involes- a.anterior interosseus nerve b.median c.ulnar d.radial
13]not supplied by anterior division of mandibular nerve is--- a.lat pterygoid b.maseter c.medial pterygoib d.temporalis
14]pain of ethmoidal sinusoitis is mediated by---naso cilliary nerve
15]not a pneumatic bone is--- mandible, maxilla, ethmoid, frontal
16]vestibular schwannoma arises from—superior vestibular division
17]diaphragm is developed from all of the following structures except- a.septum transversarium b.cervical myotome c.pleuroperitoneal membrane d.dorsal mesocardium
18]aortic musculature derived from-para axial, intermediate, latral
19]epiphysial growth plate is an example of- a.primary fibrocartilagenous joint b.secondary fibro cartilaginous joint
20]Major arterial supply to femoral neck is--- a.profunda femoris b.lateral circumflex c.medial circumflex femoral
21]not a derivative of hypogastric sheath—a.broad ligament
22]palpation of int carotid done at—superior border of thyroid
Physiology & biochemistry
1]vitamin k is required for carboxylation of----glutamate
2]urea cycle occours in------ liver
3]decreased energy is seen in thiamine deficiency this is because- thiamine is the cofactor for alfa keto glutarate and pyruvate dehydrogenase
4]increased pcv in mountaineers is due to----- a.polycythemia and dehydration b.pulmonary edema c.blood los
5]earliest sign of hypomagnesemia is-------- a.decreased dtr b.cvs depression c.hypertension d.convulsions
6.hcg levens are monitored by---- a.bio assays b.ria c.elisa d.latex agglutination
7] nitrates in intestine acts by--- inhibiting smooth muscle contraction
8]durig a body plethismography test a man gives an expiratory effort against a closed glottis what happens to preasure of body and box a.both increased b.body preassure increases box preassure decreases c.viceversa of b d.both decreases
9]cardio protective--- w3 fatty acid
10]false is--- a.level of ldl not associated with formation of foam cells b.hdl can decrease the oxidation of ldl into foam cell
11]vescicular sound heard in small airways because--- a.high Reynolds number b.lesser velocity c.lower radii of curvature d.higher total area of crossection
13]enzyme transferring nh3 ion from one molecule to other is- amino transferase
14]waxy translucent lines illuminant—phosphorus
15]orthopnia is due to--- a.pooling in pulmonary circulation b.pooling in legs
16]compliance of lung is decreased in a/e- a.reduced surface tension b.chronic bronchitis c.pulmonary edema
17]oxygenated blood is present in—umbilical vein
18]maximum water is reabsorbed from- jejunum
19]ab can be membrane bound or secretory due to- differential splicing
20]increased levels of all of the following is associated with atherogenesis except----- a.homocystine b. Ldl c. Apoe
21]Increased production of a mutant protein can be favoured by—a.increased translation factors b.inducible promoter
22]right isomerism associated with- aspleenia
23]Gs alfa subunit gain in function mutation—increased gtpas activity
24]false is--- a.factor 10 common pathway b.extrensic pathway can be activated by availability of phospholipid layer c. Calcium is an important clotting factor d.intrnsic factor pathway can be studied invitro
25]Bmr depends on—lean body mass
26]aldosterone receptors are not found in—liver
27.two plznts are grown one flourescene and another in luciferase containing media in dark what happens
1. both plants wil glow 2. both wil not glow 3. first wil glow 4. second wil glow
Forensic
1.Hyperthermia is seen in a/e- a mao i b.alcohol c.bi nitro cresol d.amphetamine
2.bluish discoloration of mucosa nails and conjunctiva seen in- a.lead b.arsenic c.copper
3.traces of gunpowder detected by- a.uv light b.infra red light
4.rave drug is-ectacy
5.Which of the following can be used in bioterrorism-- a.c botulinum b.small pox
6.signature fracture is- depressed fracture
7.sparrow leg appearance on face seen with- a.burst of dash board screen b.vitrolage c.bullet wound not penetrating face
8.imprint of tyre on body- patterned bruise
9. not a way of dental analysis- fdi,
10.voilent shaking of child seen- a.#long bones ,b.orbital#, c.epidural haematoma d.spleen injury
11.most common cause of death in schizophrenia is
Pharmacology
1.chronic use of inh causes deficiency in- isonhiazide
2.True is- a.sulfonamide binds irreversibly to enzyme b.inhibition of malathion can be reversed by increasing the concentration of ach c.flouroacetate is a competitive inhibitor of aconitase
3.not used for controlling post menopausal flushes in a woman with harmone +ve tumors is- tamoxifen
4.amphotericin b causes deficiency in- potassium
5.not given to treat diabetic macular edema-tamoxifen
6.which progesterone is given in low dose ocp- a.norethensterone b.lovogestor c.madroxyprogesterone
7.in a patient with reduced renal function, what is done to decrease toxicity due to contrast agent-- a.hypoosmotin solution b.fendopalm c.nacetyl cystine d.manitol
8.pregnant woman with new sputum +vet b what is to be done- start category 1 immidiately
9.drug of choice for central di is-desmopressin
10.patient taking lithium presenting renal toxicity signs what should not be given- diuretics
11.after taking penicillin patient presents with lymphadenopathy and shock hypotension probable cause- type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
12.pregnant woman with sle not given in treatment- methotrexate
13.resistance to opoid action acquired in a/e- miosis
14.which is most commonly used for detoxification of opoid dependence- methadone
15.alcohol detoxification all are used except- a.disulfiram b.acramposate c.flumazenil d.buspirone
16.aflatoxin secreted by-aspergillus flavus
17.fluvistart false is- a.pure estrogen antagonist b.approved for breast cancer c.toxicity/efficacy les than srem
18.parentral nutrition not given- fibers, fat, cho, micro nutrient
19.anti depressant also used in spasic bladder,- a.immipramine b.fluvoxamine
20.muscarinic antagonists donot mediate- pupilary constricti
21.serotonin syndrome a/e- a.dantrolin given b.charecterised by increased temperature and hypertension c.sri can precipitate it d.always predictable and not idiosyncratic
22. true about mrsa a/e- resistance mediated by plasmids
23.tetracycile is used in prophylaxis for- cholera
24.pulmonary fibrosis/toxicity seen with-bleomycin
25.haemorrhage after giving primaquine cause-g6pd def
26.32 yr old hypothyroid patient with heart disease- a.give low dose levothyroxine b.thyroid mass implantation c.full dose levo
27not used in migrane prophylaxis- a.propranolol b.topiramate c.flunarizine d.phenytoin/ca channel blocker
28.antiviral which is an integrase inhibitor-raltigralvir
29.contraceptive not given in epileptic patient- ocp
30.alkalysation of urine done in- a.ifsophosphamide b.methotrexate c.platins d.arac
31.not a side effect of methotrexate- diarrhoea
32.given for treatment of varices- octreatide
33.meglitanide false is— a. decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas c. it decreases insulin resistance
d. it acts by releasing insulin
34.best inotropic drug for rv -a.dopamine b.milerinone c.digoxin d.amrinone
35.digoxin toxicity causes a/e- a.ventricular bigeminy b.bi ventricular tachycardia c.atrial fibrillation regularisation d.delayed av conduction
36.false about erotinib is- a.tyrosine kinase inhibitor given for epithelial tumor b.given for ncc c.food delays its absorption d.side effect rashes
37.after craniopharyngioma surgery first drug to be given in case of endocrinal insufficiency-cortiso
38.what is given for chemotherapy induced thrombocytopenia-opralutin
39.apripitant false is-a.a.nk1 agonist b.given for chemotherapy induced vomiting c.croses blood brain barrier d.metabolised by cyp450
40.ranulogin false is-a.anti angina b.glycemic control
41.false is-insulin is never required in typr 2 dm
42.not seen on giving intra thecal opoids- a Dysphonia b.itching c.fall in bp
43.true about buprenorphine at meu receptor is-- a. Partial agonist at MU Receptor c. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
b. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor d. It is antagonist at Kappa receptor
44.which is not antiresorptive
a.Etidronate b.Strontium c.Teriparatide d.alendronate
Pathology
1.necrotising lymphadenitis seen in-kikuchi disease
2.sterile pyurea seen in-1.chronic pyelonephritis
a.wilms”s tumour b.tuberculosis c.cystitis d.chronic pyelonephritis
3.in a disease with platelet dysfunction what happens- a.normal number increased bt b.decreased number increased bt
4.psamoma bodies not found in-follicular ca thyroid
5.d/d between follicular adenoma and carcinoma- vascular invasion
6.not an immune mediated disease- sickle cell anemia
7.not due to abnormal protein folding- tb
8.not associated with erythema nodosum pregnancy
9.histopathology of nodule in leg shows fibroblastic foci with neutrophilic infiltration likely diagnosis sweats syndrome
10.type of antibody seen in apla- gpi,ana
11.most charecteristi finding in acute inflammation- increased vascular permiability
12.increased free radical injury is associated with increased levels of a/e – superoxide dismutase , gutathion peroxidase
13.alt and classical pathway both activate c3
14.pirions- catalise folding of other protein
15.chimerism is seen in- a. singleton pregnancy b.monoamniotic .monochorionic c.diamniotic monochorionic
16.cell organelle involved in apoptosis -mitochondria
17.hybrids are obtained by using the following technique except- 1)attaching inactive viral particle on cell membrane
2)adding ethylene glycol 3)applying a small electric current
18.slide fixing in pathology done by-
a.formaldehyde b.alcohol c.picric acid d.glutraldehyde
19.false about xanthogranuloma- caused by tb
20. most potent stimulant of naive t cell- mature dendritic cell
21.malignancy associated with nf syndrome-
A.jml B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Aml
22.coarctation of aorta mc associated with bicuspid valves
23.aml poor prognostic factor-
24.on fist time exposure to ova cells type of ab produced is- igm
25.hb h disease occours due to -loss of 4 alfa genes
26.phagocytosis all are true except >5 micrometer engulfed <5micrometer engulfed
27.narp is- mitochondrial disorder
28.cavitation pneumonia is seen in- staphylococcus
29.nesidoblastoma false is
a. Occurs in adults more than child b.episodes of hypoglycaemia are seen
c. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet cells d. Diazoxide is used in treatment
30.not a true neuronal tumor
a.Neuroblastoma b. Gangliocytoma c. Ganglioglioma d.ependymoma
31.true abt gastric carcinoma-
a.occult bleeding in stool not seen b.achlorhydia predispose c.always scc d)radiosenstive
32.decreased calcium increased phosphate and increased pth investigation not done is- urine routine
33.killing power in phagolysosome is due to- oxidase
34. c in crp stands for- cho polysaccharide of pneumococcus
Microbiology
1.je false is- a.in epidemics only 2-3 cases seen in a village b.mosquito bite is always associated c.70% infants
2.a sewer worker presents with flu like symptoms liver studie abnormal trearment done is- a.sulfonamide b.quinolone
3.yaws not true is-
a. transmitted non-venerally b.caused by t.pertenue
c. Secondary yaw can involve bones d. Last stages involve heart & nerves
4.coryni bacterium diptheriae a/e- toxin production chromosomally mediated
5.enterococcus
6.prolonged carrier state not seen in measles
7.most common cause of migrating visceral larva migrans is- toxocara, strongyloidosis, visceral leishmaniasis
8.patient comes with a history of fever cough not responding to treatment x rays shows signs of pneumonia grams staining shows gram +ve branching filaments partly acid fast probable cause- a.actinomycosis b.nocardiosis c.aspergillus
10.uncomplicated uti is diagnosed by a/e a. pus cell per field b.bacilli stained by gram stain c.nitrate test +ve
11.patient comes with lymphadenopathy and hypotension after being bitten by rat what staining is to be done- waysons stain
12.bile solubility to differentiate pneumococcus
13.poly saccharide capsule helps in pathogenesis of a/e- a.H.inflluenzae b.Strep pneumoniae c.N.meningitidis d.bordetella pertusis
14.parvo virus false is
a.has affinity for erythrocyte p antigen b.causes transient aplastic crisis
c.about only 10%of cases it crosses the placent d.spread by respiratory route
15. not transmitted transplacentally- hsv
16.true about Chlamydia trachomatis is- culture of pus for isolation of organism
17.leptosporiosis true is- a.rats acts as reservoir b.feco oral route c.50%cases liver and kidney involved
18.clostridium tetani false is- a.incubation period 7-10 days b.person to person contact c.heat resistant d.3 doses of vaccination
19.c.jejuni false is- a.commonest cause of campylobacteriosis b.polutry source of infection c.humans are reservoir d.associated with gbs
20.mc fungal infection in a non aids patient is-
A.aspergillus B. Candida C. Cryptococcus D. Muco
21.mc cause of meningo encephalitis in children is- entero virus
22.8 yr old with sign of meningitis and ear infections with ring enhancement in the fronto temporal lobe all can cause it except a.hinfuenzeae b.staphylococcus c.pneumococcus d.pseudomonas
23.whooping cough specimen is collected from nasopharyngial swab
24.false abt pneumococcus- a.capsule helps in virulence b.mc cause of otitis media
Preventive Medicine
1.skew is calculated as a.mean-mode/standard deviation b.mode-mean/std deviation c.std deviation d.std deviation/mean-mode
2.punnet square is for-- a.genotype of offspring b.statistical analysis
3.orthotoludin test done for chlorine
4.not true abt hospital waste management is
a.red bag contents can be source of contamination b.human anatomical waste disposed in yellow bag c.black bag for incineration ash
d.blue bag contents always disposed in secure landfill
5.abt mmr true is denominator has total live births
6. incidence of fetal spread of aids is decreased by a/e vaginal delivary
7.test for pasteurisation phosphatise test
8.not endemic in india is yellow fever
9. not a cause of resurgence of malaria is use of bed nets
10.resistant to ddt a/e phlebotomas
11.indoor pollutant a/e
a]co b)nitrogen dioxide c)radon d)mercury vapours
12.false negetives demonstrated by graph
13.5 factors determine a disease occourance, which test is suitable in this case multivariate, anova
14.National screening programme doest include for- a.dm b.ca cervix c.breast ca d.dental carries
15.mckeons model for medical awareness for tb shows decreased incidence of tb due to-
a.increased awareness and knowledge b.medical advancement c.social & env factor d)behav modfn
16.who stratergies for public health doest include leadership
17.not a deliberate mosquito control measure alkaline soap water
18.sampling method applied when groups are divided into subgroups and samples are taken a.stratified sampling b.cluster sampling c.simple random sampling
19.hdi includes a/e education,gdp, life expectancy at birth, life expectancy at 1 yr of age
20.dietary recommendation are a/e
a. To avoid alcohol consumption b. Salt intake should be less than 5gm/day
c. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet d.Cholesterol intake should be 100 gm/1000 kcal/day
Orthopaedics
1.blounts disease is- a.genu valgum b.genu varum c.genu rectavatum d.meninscal tear
2.reimplantation first thing to be done is bone
3.teenage girl complains ofpain while walking upstairs or after prolonged standing cause is 1. A.Chondromalacia of patella b. Patellar Fracture
c. Torn Meniscus d. Bipartite Patella
4.child presents with limp pain in femoral triangle diagnostically most appropriate test done is mri
5.best investigation for bone metastasis bone scan
6.osteoarthritis grade 3 management conservative
7. a50 yr lady referred by orthoped with history of sprained ankle 2 mths back.. f/b recovery.. however she now complains of severe pain in that ankle with inability to flex that foot.. physician notes edema n shiny skin in local examination...prob dx:
a fibromyalgia b chr. regional pain synd1 c chr. regional pain synd 2 d.peripheral neuropathy
Obsteretics and Gynaecology
1.clue cells seen in-bacterial vaginosis
2.fallopian tube cilliary motility impaired in- katageners
3.which surgery for stress incontinence has highest suces rate- a.kelly b.brusch colpo suspension c.sling d.vaginal tape
4.cholestasis in pregnancy is diagnosed by measuring bile acids
5.not a cause of primary amennorhoea sneehans syndrome
6.timing of ovulation determined by a/e estrous cycle
7.post menopausal bleeding usg shows 8mm thickening of endometrium next investigation endometrial biopsy
8.33 wk 1500 gm baby born after cs management is oral intubation and oral feeding
9.xo genotype commonly associated with gonidal dysgenesis
10.open ntd shows elevated levels of acetylcholie esterase
11.Earliest abnormality to be diagnosed by tv usg- anencephaly
12.mefipristone is used in abortion
13.give sedatives and bed rest
14.clue cells seen in bacterial vaginosis
15.pcod false is increased prolactin
16.shoulder dystocia not done is fundal preasure
17.contraindicated in a pregnant rheumatic fever patient is ergots
18.pregnancy can be successfully continued with minimal maternal risk in wpw syndrome
20.maternal weight is not influenced by smoking
21.placenta previa management a/e cervical encircalage
22.virilisation of a female infant is due to a/e placental sulfatase deficiency
23.niot a evidence based treatment of menorrhagia ethamsylate
Paediatrics
1.baby 33 wks delivered after cs weighing 1500 gm should be started on 1. nil oral and iv fluids 2.oral nasogastric tube / aternate oralroute 3..TPN
2.18 yr old boy presents with malina , haematemasis and spleenomegaly probable cause a.malaria dic b.extra hepatic portal vein obstruction c.bile duct occlusion d.cirrhosis
3. pathological laryngophagial reflux presenting symptom respiratory symptoms
4.5yr old chid presents with abdominal pain followed by diarrhoea probable cause is polyp
5.major prognostic factor for cdh ispulmonary hypertension
6.child borm to dm mother presents with convulsions after 16 hrs probable cause is hypoglycemia
7.bronchiolitis obliterans
8.malignant childhood tumor causing b/l proptosis a.t cell tumors b.rhabdomyo sarcoma c.all d.aml
9.asd can be differentiated from vsd by
a. Pulmonary congestion b. Aortic shadow c.enlarged la
10.b/l adrenal haemorrhage
11.pentalogy of fallot-asd
Medicine
1.minerelocorticoid receptors are seen in a/e liver
2.ecg can diagnose a block in a/e a.lcd, b. left, c. Right ,d. lad
3.a patient comes to opd with epigastric pain radiating to back on usg gall stones and a swollen pancreas seen. Serum amylase was not elevated probable cause a. acute pancreatits b.acute cholicystitis c.io
4.first sign of pulmonary pleuthora is
a. diameter of the decending Rt pulmonay artery >16mm b.diameter of the main pulmonay artery >16mm c. diameter of the lt pulmonay artery >16mm
5.basilar migrane
6.girl presents with rapid weight gain growth failiure and dry shiny skin probable cause a.thyroid dysfunction b.dysharmongenesis
7.normal fsh and lh seen in vas obstruction
8.a patient presents with a goitre, high tsh and low t4 probable diagnosis a.central hypothyroidism
b.thyroid hormone receptor defect c.dysgenesis d.dyshormogenesis
9,best test for myasthenia gravis edrophonium test
10. incomplete compensation with pco2 30, p02 105, ph 7.45 probable cause is a.resp alkalosis b.metabolic acidisis
11.in uncompentated dka not true is .pco2 levels are normal or increased
12.fasting hypoglycaemia is not due to a)glucagon excess
a]increased glucagon levels b) glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
c) glycogen synthase deficiency d)ureamia
13.for diagnosing insulinoma useful tests are a/e d xylulose test
14.cjd
15.normal parathyroid levels with increased phosphate and decreased ca is seen in pseudohypoparathyroidism
17.best method for monitoring cardiac function in intraoperative mi is
A.ecg B. Invasive arterial pressure C. Central venous pressure
D. Trans esophageal echocardiogram
18.not given for prophylaxis in migrane is- a.topiramate b.phenytoin c.levatriacitam d.flunarizine
19.raise in end tidal co2 in thyroid surgery with tachypnea and hypertension is seen in a/e a.thyroid storm b.anaphylaxis
20.pheochromocytoma true a/e
B. 95% occur in the abdomen C. They secrete catecholamines
D. They arise from sympathetic ganglion A. 90% are malignant
21.for diagnosis of diabetes insipidus
Surgery
1.a person comes with 5 yr history of painless haematuria on 4 occasions the urine is filled with clotted blood which investigation would be diagnostically most revealing a.x ray kub b.urine routine and microscopy c.rcug d.dpta
2.in a person with single kidney a fungating mass was seen in the lower pore of kidney next step in management a.partial nephrectomy b.radical nephrectomy with dialysis c.radical nephrectomy with immediate renal transplant d.observation
3.gcs-10
4.hepatic lobe left to falciparum ligament 2 and 3
5.patient with stab wount with omentum coming out of wound, vitals are stable next step in management is a.immidiate laprotomy b.fast c.wound debridment and closure
6.bladder ca stage 2 true is
7.gastro esophagial reflux gold standard for diagnosis 24 hr dual ph monitoring
8.while doing turp most common site for stricture formation in urethra
a.navicular fossa B. Bulb C. Prostatic membranous urethra D. Bladder neck
9.turp in done upper to verumontanum so as to avoid injury to
10.commonest sign of pulmonary pleuthora is right side > 16
11.which organ is not used for transplantation from a cadaver a.liver b.lung c.bladder d.blood vessels
12.best repair for stress incontinence is kellys
13.patient presents with epigastric pain radiating to back with normal serum values. Diagnosis was made after ct and usg after which operation was don what was the surgical procedure performed pancreatojejunostomy
14.patient who had surgery for duodenal ulce presents with epigastric pain more during night which gets realieved on taking food probable diagnosis is
15.amoebic liver abcess 1cm below capsule with size 3*4 cm true statement is
16.hollow viscous perforation next step in management
17.circumferential phimosis management is
18.ranula is
19.secondary haemorrhage occours after 6 days
20.tripple phosphate stone seen in proteus infection
21.c/i in medical management of gall stones radioluscent stone
22.aspiration of food management
A.cricothyroidectomy B. Emergency tracheostomy
C. Humidified oxygen D. Heimlich maneuver
23.cryptorchidic testes to be repaired by 12 months
24.sebaceous ulcerated cysts are found in association A. Gardner ’s syndrome B. Turcot syndrome C. Torre Maura syndrome
25.superior vena cava syndrome is caused by- A. Lymphoma
A.malignant lymphoma B. Small cell lung ca C. Nscc D. Secondary tumours
26.Blaschisko line is
a.lymphatic lines b.blood vessel c. nerve d.line of development
Skin
1.Cicatrising alopecia with perifolicular whiteness is most commonly associated with
a. Nail dystrophy b. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa c. Arthritis
d. Discoid Plaques in the face
2.2months after having a painless penile ulcer a patient presents with mucocutaneous lesion and oral ulcers causative organism is treponema pallidium
3.pseudoisomorphism phenomenon not seen in a/e A.psoriasis B. Lichen planus C. Vitiligo D. Plane warts
Radiology
1.aortic knob is masked by
a.upper lingual b.lower lingual c.apex of lower lobe d. post part ofupper lobe
2.ct scan is least useful in diagnosing
a. 1 cm of aneurysm in artery b.1 cm of lymph node in thyroid ca
c.1 cm of pancreas mass in tail d. 1 cm of ....
3.dose of radiation associated with haematological crisis a. 2.5-5 CGY b. 10 cgy c. 100 cgy d. 200 cgy
4.about contrast radiography true is a.3 parts of iodine with 2 parts of solvent b.injection into artery is associated with 1/3 times more complication than injection into a vein
Ophthalmology
1.late endopthalmitis after iol implantation pseudomonas
2.superior oblique paralysis will result in defective vision if he looks of vertical on looking down
3.leukokoria in one eye and two small nodules at periphery of disc in other eye treatment
4.floaters with sudden los of vision cause retinal tear
5.argyl robertsonian pupil false is consensual reflex normal
6.slowly expanding central macular vision los with no genetic history probable cause is staggerds syndrome
Ent
1.not true abt use of naf in otosclerosis is naf decreases osteoblastic activity
2.cavernous sinus thrombosis
3.while performing laser surgery for larynx it catches fire what should not be done by a.100%oxygen after discontinuing the anesthesia b.flushing with sterile water c.remove pvc tube d.steroids and antibiotics
4.endolymphatic hydrops seen n miners disease
5.onodi and hellar cells are found in
Anesthesia
1.la + vasoconstrictive drug is not given in digital anesthesia
2.sickle cell anemia not given is regional iv block
3.not a definite airway is laryngial mask airway
4.convulsions is seen due to the use of which anesthetic a.ether b.halothane c.sevoflurane d.desflurane
5.while giving epidural anesthesia a person suddenly develops dysphonia and collapses possible cause a.total spinal block b.anaphylaxis c.vasovagal syncope
6.anesthetic not given in hypertensive patient ketamine
7.patient remembers the events occurring during operation this can be prevented by bisspectral
8.true abt epidural opoids are all except a.act on dorsal horn cells b.can cause itching c.nausea and vomiting d.resp and cvs depression
Psychiatry
1.a 5yr history of schizophrenia patient started on haloperidol 2 days back comes with neck rigidity orofaciolingual movements protruded tongue probable cause— a.acute dystonia b.akathesia c.neuroleptic malignant syndrome
2.not seen in alcoholic trmens opthalmoplegia
3.woman after loosig job diagnosed as depression true is ssri are the most effective
4.imbecile false is iq level 50-70
Orthopaedics
1.blounts disease is- a.genu valgum b.genu varum c.genu rectavatum d.meninscal tear
2.reimplantation first thing to be done is bone
3.teenage girl complains ofpain while walking upstairs or after prolonged standing cause is 1. A.Chondromalacia of patella b. Patellar Fracture
c. Torn Meniscus d. Bipartite Patella
4.child presents with limp pain in femoral triangle diagnostically most appropriate test done is mri
5.best investigation for bone metastasis bone scan
6.osteoarthritis grade 3 management conservati
--------------------------
5 q.IN the pt who is in the[ state of consciousness what is the minimum level of score measured on glassgow coma scale??
a.7
b.5
c.3
d.0
-------------------
1 All of the following can be a cause of resurgent malaria except –
a. Emergence of new strains
b. Genetic alterations in the host
c. Drug resistance in the parasite
d. Resistance of the vector to DDT
2 ADH/DI from hypothalamic nuclei
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. suprachiasmatic
3.least common occupational Ca
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia
4.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium lepra
5 to access state of consciousness in t,. minimum GCS score is
a.7
b.1
c.3
d.0
6.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
d.letrozol
7.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.adjuvant
d.lipid Ag
8.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.erythromycin
9.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
10 Bacteria causing Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis -
a) Strep. Viridians
b)staph areua
c)lactobacillus
d.beta hemolytic strept
11 parotid fascia continues anteriorly as...
1.fascia lata
2.deep cervical fascia
3 MASSETERIC FASCIA
12which is difficult to diagnose
1,necrosed pulp
2.chronic pulitis@@@
3.internal resorption
13 heriditary spherocytosis,all are true except
a- increased osmotic fragility
b. increase vol:surface ratio
14All r true abt propofol exept
causes vomiting@@@@
15ann arbour classification
Stage III :
>Involvement of lymph node regions or lymphoid structures on both sides of the diaphragm
>Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm
16 Dental floss - Type 1 embrassure
17function of serum albumin
oncotic pressure
toxin transport
buffer
drug transport
18dengue haemorrhagic fever caused by
virus
19which of foll nt used in hrtfailure
spironolactone,
Nitroglycerine
nestride
trimetazidine
20 non resp function of lung....
.sodium balance
21 mysthania gravis..which is nt true...
ab formed to ach receptors,
accumulation of ach.
.abs bind to ach...
22 .negpredictivevalue 0.75 means....
75%chances tht dis wil nt be present if test is negative.
23..ethnicity refers to....
24 incidence of dis at particular age in a given place calc by....(CPAP values)
.paired t test
,chi sq test
,student t
test of variance
25was sensory branch of ant. division of mandi. nerve
.-long buccal
buccal n
26sensory supply of soft palate a/e
vagus
facial nerve
27tevdek sutures- 4-72 hrs
28 CLINICALLY SUSPICIOUS LESION- REPEAT BIOPSY
29prophylaxis of migraine
topiramate
ppl
fluner
30leukemia not common in
down syndrome
bloom syndrome
31normal cd4 cell count
1000 cells
500
200
100
32bronchodilating intravenous anesthetic
propofol
thiopentone
ketamine
33most common caries seen in primary teeth ??
occlusal pit fissures of molars
proximal surface below cntct point
proximal surface above cntct point
34 aftr viewing a radiograph there were caries deep may b approaching the pulp horn ... wht should u do ??
remove the entire carious lesion as part of acces prep n strt endodontic therapy
remove sum caries n place a intermmediate sedative dressng
place a sedative dressing plan for a pulpotomy in the next appointment
35bordetella pertusis ?? all except
it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine
36 spinal cord lesion causing dissociative sensory loss
a.decussating fibres from lateral spinothalamic tract
anterior column
dorsal column
37mosaic bone patern ???
oestitis deformans
osteosarcoma
fibrous dysplasia
38most common cause of tmj ankylosis ???
trauma
infection
39wht can u find out only by radiographs ???
anatomical root length
sulcus depth
40 root caries
actinomyces viscosus
strepto mutans
41 not seen in periodontosis ????
mycoplasma
actinomyces
a.a
42root caries - A.viscosis (repeated in exam)
43 forces of --- occur in alveolar border of mandibular fracture
compression
tension
44which is not injured in lower third molar extrn
IAN
IAA
Lingual nerve
lingual artery ??
45 x ray for third molar revelas nerve becomes thinner along the tooth root.. cause??
root perforated by nerve,
nerve goes between root of teeth
46 The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn
cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the
post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be
identified by a positive Nagler reaction
47 Which of the following is not a somatic efferent
a) trochlear
b) facial @@@@@@@@@@
c) abducens
d) occulomotor
48 dofti is used for?
proximal caries in primary teeth
49 pulmonary endothelium?
lipoprotein lipase...
plasma actiyation factor
thrombin
factor x
50 when patient has vancomycin resistant infection, tablet to b given,
oflaxacin
clarithromycin
cefatrime
linezolid
51 which does not cause sedation
buspirone
diazepam
52 patient taking rifampicin and OC became pregnant .. why?
cos rifampicin caused increased metabolism of OC
increase excretion of OC
decreased absorpton of OC
53 least antiemetic
domperidone
cisapride@@@@@@
chlorpromazine
metaclopromide
54 best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
55 all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma
56 decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise
57 which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.lQF-PCR
c.microarray
d.nested pcr
58 mensual cycle indicator
a.hormone steroid profile@@@@@@
59 not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal
60 if pneumothorax occurs in a patient...
a.surfactant will be reduced...
b.intrapleural pressure becomes more negative....
61 in maternal mortality rate whch is not true
a.it is expressed per 1000
b.it is ratio not rate
c. denominator includes stiil births, live births,..
62 all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,
63 fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E @@@@[
64 india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB
65 interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above
66sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which
bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none
67attached gingiva is
always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes
68m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
69m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture
70probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone
71supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve
72difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
73 all of d above in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease
74 mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma
75Coeliac plexus is located:
1. Anterolateral & around the aorta>this is wrong answer.
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain .
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
76 ga intrathecal contraindicated?
Fentanyl
ramefentanyle
77 parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat
78 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
79 a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis @@@@@@@@
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
80 green stains on children teeth
chromogenic bacteria
81orf stands for
open reading frame??
82 Donavanosis true is,
caused ny camylobacterium
83 the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
84 Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss
85 plasma cells most fatal
1.pagets disease
2.multiple myeloma
3.osteosarcoma
86 .LA Failure
Cations
87 recycling of small bile acid pool
fast
slow
88 .Oral polio virus: killed vaccine
89 nonvascular headache, anaesthesia dolorosa
90.malignancy of AIDS: kaposi Sarcoma.
91 .Cooley,s
92.genicluate ganglion : Taste.
93 Centre of eye movements.
Frontal visual field
94. site for subsance P
95 All are tocolytic except.....
???
???
??
Atosiban????
96 Dopamine receptors D2 blocks Prolactin secretion, so when there is smethng interfering wid dis Dopamine receptors than what will not occur,...
a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation
97 Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it? Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso
98 high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children
a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false
99'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?
a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus @@@@@@@
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity
100 nitrates r not used in
a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic @@@@@@@@@@@
d. cyanide poisoning
101 'whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?
a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril
102 Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in
a.Shallow sulcus @@@@@
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation
103Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme
104 desquamative gingivits histological feaus- loss of basement membrane
105 blood coagualation defect not seen?
a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.
106MTA p:l ratio 3:1
107 Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous@@@@@@@@
osteophytic
exophytic
108 type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical@@@@@@
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic
109 most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics @@@@@@@@@
insulin
birth control pills
110 most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility@@@@@@@@@
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture
111 probable etiology of gingivosis is
high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone@@@@@
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency
112 Down syndrome translocation
46XY -14 t[14,21]
47XY +21 t[14,21]
47XY -14 t[14,21]
46XY t{14,21]
113 supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative@@@@@@@@@
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
114 which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption@@@@@@@@@@
115 delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens @@@@@@@@@
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above
________________________________________
116 which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing
117 which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index@@@@@@@
-sulcus bleeding index
118 which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index@@@@@@@@@@@
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
119 -all of the above following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index@@@@@@@@@@@@
- glass criteria for scoring debris
120 teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines@@@@@@@@@
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
121 sinusitis...fluid level..clouding
122ground glass appearence.. {was this asked ?}
.
123 sphingomylein....
124 back pressure porosity...
125 film speed recommended for caries detection
1 c
2 d
3 e
4 f
126 hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none
127 Radiograph alone can diagnose:
1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement
128 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:
1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease
129. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy
130 all are true abt sitagliptin except,.....
-is nt given alone, always wid sulfonylureas-
-it causes,.. sme adverse effects??
-increases insulin secrection,decreases glucagon,,
131What is seen in acute infection?
-leucocytosis@@
-leukopenia
-lymphocytosis
-neutopenia
132'saw tooth' rete pegs are seen in
lichen planus@@@
133 >>radiating lines on buccal mucosa
lichen planus@@
134MEAN>>>MEDIAN>>>>MODE__________ POSITIVELY SKEWED
135 which of the following should be done for better efficiency and longer shelf life of a carbide bur..
-should rotate slow before entering the cavity
-should rotate fast before entering the cavity
-sould rotate fast before entering the mouth
-should rotate after entering the cavity
136 if a 6 yr old patient comes with a bluish-purlpe swelling behind the deciduous second molar, then what will u do??
- assure the patient,explain the situation and send him back
- some curettage/enucleation/or sme extensive procedure,.. cant recall d other options
137 Bacterial enzyme causing degradation of ground substance _______
a) Hyaluronidase b) Collagenase
138 which of thw following is correct for a facial porcelain preparation
the walls should be parralel to the tooth surface
the walls should converge facially
the walls should diverge facially
the walls should meet the tooth surface at right angels
139 excisional biopsy
-removal of normal tissue and all of lesion @@@@
140 >paradoxical movement of chest in a patient who has suffered from trauma-
_flail chest@@@
141 Rotheras test used to detect
carbohydrate
protien
fat
ketone bodies
142which of the following seen with acromegaly
-large tongue@@@
-micrognathia
-crowding
143 drug of choice trigeminal neuralgia-carbamazepine
144 which of the following controls voluntary eye movements?
a.frontal eye field
b.superior colliculus
c.visual cortex
d.cerebellum
145 Which of the following does not cause postural hypotension
prazoxin
phetolamine
146 normal glucose and increased protein in CSF
147 Which of the following is not an Alpha 2 blocker,
yohimbein
148which of the following is useful in representing the relationship between age and incidence of cancer?
A.bar diagram.
B.line diagram.
C.pie diagram.
D.stem and leaf.
149four mabs and mechanisms, which is not correct
ritusuximab/ etc CD cells/Bcells /TNFa/interleukins.. etc
150 young child with indurated ulcers, fever , lymhadenopathy.... (acute herpati gingivostomatitis
-symptomatic tT
151 pt complains of pain and foul smell on third day after extraction,
-irrigate the socket and place sedative dressing
-curretage, sedative dressing
-search for the roots
152 if a radiograph shows 3mm bone loss, nd clinically there is 6-mm bone loss , true is?
-facial or lingual bone masking the loss of interdental bone on radiograft
153 first step to be done after trauma?/
-clear airway
-circulation maintainance
154 Radiographically the level of alveolar crest corresponds to?
-CEJ of adjacent teeth@@@@@@@@@@@
-dentoenamal junction?
-trabeculae pattern?
-gingival margin?
155 Child dosage of NSAIDs,. depend on
weight of child
156 difference in the cavity prepaaration of gold inlay and composite class 5
convenient form
gingival bevel
cavosurface margine
157 patient complains of sharp pain after recent restoration of gold onlay
due to
-galvanic current due to gold cast crown opposing amalgam restoration @@@@
-improper filling\
-pulpitis
158 Most common Tumor of Parotid Gland
-Pleomorphic Adenoma
159 Herpangina is caused by
-Cocksakie virus
160 Deficiency of which vitamin will cause Hypoplasia of all teeth
-Vit A @@@
161 Neonatal Teeth
- those errupted with in 30 days of birth @@@@
- by 1 year
-at birth
162 most common site for sialoliths
-parotid duct
-parotid gland
-submandibular gland and duct@@@@@@@@@@
-sublingual
163 nt match
......>herbiside
nalaxone>tca
164not related to action of cortiosteroids
DECREASE ..iCAM...
165..DNA repairs defect associated with
A.Xeroderma pigmentosum@@@@
B.icthyosis
c.Mosaicism.
d???
166 >> First radio sigh to diagnose carious involvement in primary tooth
-radiolucency in furcation area@@@@@
-apical pdl radiolucency
-internal resorption
167 What will u do if after etching Class III cavity preperation is contaminated by saliva..
-wash, rinse and re-etch @@@
168.20 mins after avulsion of teeth what should be done
-rinse wid saline, and replant @@@@
-cutretage of root/etch??
169 true about multiple myloma
invariably raised alkaline phosphatase
170 True abt Autism,
-Mental retardation &
-speech prob & communication prob
171 juvenile periodontitis
areobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve
-anareobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve, .
172 prostrate specific antigen-
tumour marker
173 obesity not caused by
diabetes mallitus
estrogen deficiency
hypothyroidism
174 Not present in basement membrane
rhodopsin
175 sd/mean
coefficient of variance
standard error
176 Hyaline cartilage collagen
type II
177 gout = purine metabolism
178 turner tooth
179carpenter syndrome?
180 oxycephaly?
181/50%drug elimination at end of infusion
context half life?
182 cerebellar region lesion........
b.ipsilateral
c. contralateral
183 DLC-EOSINOPHILIA
184 HAEMOPHILIA - DEFECT IN FACTOR 8 GENE
185 SOMATOMEDIN MEDIATE- CHONDRITIN SULFATE DEPOSITION
186 True about broncial circulation
air conditioning
187 fibers attached to adjaceent teeth
transeptal
188 phlegmon type of
cellulitis
189 Incidence is high and prevalance is low means
a. disease is cured easily or fatal
b.disease is not cured easily
c. they are not related
190. not attached to oblique line of hyroid cartilage
sup constrictor
middle constrictor
191,. No change in rural/urban
TB
192 less light headedness and early recovery and ambulation
propofol
193. CO poisoning
shift of curve
2,3 bpg
194. mutation of sickle cell anaemia protective against
malaria
195. anti pseudomonal - cefoperazone
196haemopoietic stem cells differ frm committed progenitor cells
long term reconstitution of bone marrow
197 true about ace inhibitors,
c.i in asthma
198Which of the following cells migrate into the sulcus, in largest quantity, as a result of plaque accumalation
a)lymphocytes
b)macrophages
c)neutrophils/PMNs @@@@@@@@@
d)plasma cells
--------------------------------
1. reliability of a screening test refers to:
a accurately measures what it is supposed to measure
b gives same values even on repeated testing. ans
c the extent to which the observer can go in finding the result
d depends on knowledge of the observer
2. an imp non respiratory functn of lungs:
a anion balance
b sodium balance ans
c pottassium balance
d calcium balance
3 decreased bmr is seen in:
a obesity ans
b hyperthyroidism
c feeding
d exercise
4 shingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:
a niemann pick disease ans
b farber disease
c tay sach's disease
d krabbe's disease
5 rural and urban difference in prevelance is seen in all
of the following except:
a lung cancer
b tuberculosis ans
c mental illness
d chronic bronchitis
6 all of the following factors leads to resurgence of malaria except:
a drug resistance in parasite
b drug resistance in vectors
c drug resistance in host.....
d genetic variation in........ may be answer c or d
7 india aims to eliminate which of the following by 2015:
a malaria
b tuberculosos
c kala azar
d filariasis ans
8 bence jones proteins are derived from:
a alpha globulins
b beta
c gamma globulins ans
d delta
9 gout is a disorder of:
a purine metabolism ans
b pyrimdine metabolism
c ketone metab
d protein metab
10 which of the followng methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation:
a basal body temperature
b fern test
c spinnbarkeit phenomenon
d hormonal study...or some steroidal level was the option answer
d is ans
11 autisticchild characterised with disorder:
a visual impairement ans
b delayed development of speech
c lack of social interation...... or else
d .............?
---------------------------------
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